Quiz 102: Adaptive Immunity McCance/Huether: Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis of Disease in Adults and Children, 8th Edition

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Quiz 102: Adaptive Immunity
McCance/Huether: Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis of Disease in Adults and Children, 8th Edition

Questions 38
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response?
a. The immune response is similar each time it is activated.
b. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it.
c. The response to a specific pathogen is short term.
d. The response is innate, rather than acquired.

2. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
a. Thymus gland
b. Regional lymph nodes
c. Bone marrow
d. Spleen

3. What is the term for the process during which lymphoid stem cells migrate and change into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells?
a. Clonal diversity
b. Clonal differentiation
c. Clonal selection
d. Clonal competence

4. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
a. Passive-acquired immunity
b. Active-acquired immunity
c. Passive-innate immunity
d. Active-innate immunity

5. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
a. Passive-acquired immunity
b. Active-acquired immunity
c. Passive-innate immunity
d. Active-innate immunity

6. The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
a. Immunotope
b. Paratope
c. Epitope
d. Antigenitope

7. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen?
a. Size
b. Foreignness
c. Complexity
d. Quantity

8. A student asks why some vaccinations are given orally and some are given by injection. What response by the professor is best?
a. Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with the intravenous route being the fastest.
b. Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen.
c. Antigen-presenting cells are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes.
d. Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue, resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.

9. The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both do what?
a. Are antigen-presenting molecules
b. Bind antigens to antibodies
c. Secrete interleukins during the immune process
d. Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

10. Where are antibodies produced?
a. Helper T lymphocytes
b. Thymus gland
c. Plasma cells
d. Bone marrow

11. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

12. Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

13. An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

14. How does the B-cell receptor (BCR) complex function?
a. Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell
b. Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells
c. Releasing histamine and other vasoactive substances
d. Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

15. The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?
a. Fetal
b. Neonatal
c. Infancy
d. Puberty

16. A student is confused about the process of the generation of clonal diversity. What description by the professor is best?
a. It involves antigens that select those lymphocytes with compatible receptors.
b. It allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature Peyer patches.
c. It takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs.
d. It causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations.

17. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
a. Yeast
b. Cancer cells
c. Bacteria
d. Fungus

18. Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell?
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-4
d. IL-12

19. Th2 cells produce IL-4 and suppress which cells?
a. B lymphocytes
b. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
c. Th1 cells
d. Memory T lymphocytes

20. Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th1 cells?
a. Th1 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens.
b. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.
c. Th1 cells produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13.
d. They assist in the development of humoral immunity.

21. Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th2 cells?
a. Th2 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens.
b. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.
c. Th2 cells produce IL-2, TNF-ß, and IFN-.
d. They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity.

22. When a person is exposed to most antigens, antibodies can be usually detected in their circulation within what timeframe?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 3 days
d. 6 days

23. Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of what?
a. Strong response from IgM
b. Level of protection provided by IgG
c. Memory cells for IgE
d. Rapid response from IgA

24. The healthcare professional working with older adults teaches general infection-prevention measures as a priority for this age group due to which change in lymphocyte function?
a. Increased production of antibodies against self-antigens
b. Decreased number of circulating T cells
c. Decreased production of autoantibodies
d. Increased production of helper T cells

25. How do antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins?
a. Lysing the cell membrane of the toxins
b. Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects
c. Inhibiting the synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth
d. Interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication

26. Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host’s own tissues against an autoimmune response?
a. Cytotoxic T cells
b. Th1 cells
c. Th2 cells
d. Regulatory T (Treg) cells

27. Evaluation of umbilical cord blood can confirm that which immunoglobulin level is near adult levels?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE

28. Which statement is true concerning IgM?
a. IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen.
b. IgM mediates many common allergic responses.
c. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins.
d. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta.

29. Which cell has the ability to recognize antigens presented by the MHC class I molecules?
a. T cytotoxic
b. CD 4
c. CD 8
d. T helper

30. Which cell has a role in developing cell-mediated immunity?
a. Th1
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. Th2

31. A student asks the healthcare professional how the aging process of the T-cell activity affects older adults. What response by the professional is best?
a. Poor heat regulation abilities
b. Increased risk for bone fractures
c. Tendency to develop various infections
d. Likelihood of experiencing benign skin lesions

32. Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?
a. The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.
b. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.
c. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.
d. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age.

33. Antibodies that are associated with mucosal immune system, such as immunoglobulins, function to prevent which type of infections?
a. Infections that attack the respiratory system
b. Infections that tend to be chronic in nature
c. Infections likely to be resistant to antibiotics
d. Infections that focus on epithelial surfaces of the body

34. Cytokines are vital to a cell’s ability to do which function?
a. Excrete
b. Reproduce
c. Metabolize
d. Communicate

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person? (Select all that apply.)
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Tetanus
d. Gonorrhea
e. Diphtheria

2. Which statements are true concerning the humoral immune response? (Select all that apply.)
a. The humoral immune response is divided into major and minor phases.
b. The response has IgG and IgM produced during each of its phrases.
c. It has a greater presence of IgG than IgM in one of its phases.
d. The humoral immune response is produced in reaction to the presence of an antigen.
e. Phases differ in their response time as a result of the effect of memory cells.

3. CD4 is a characteristic surface marker and a result of which of these? (Select all that apply.)
a. Activity in the primary lymphoid organs
b. Process of cellular differentiation
c. Alterations to T cells
d. Changes to B cells
e. Clonal selection

4. What are the necessary components of an adaptive immune response? (Select all that apply.)
a. Antigen
b. Gamma IgG
c. Lymphocyte surface receptors
d. Crystalline fragment
e. Antibody

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