Quiz 12: Cancer Biology

Questions 50
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Quiz 12: Cancer Biology

Questions 50
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which cancer originates from connective tissue?
a. Osteogenic sarcoma c. Multiple myeloma
b. Basal cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma

2. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
a. Blood vessels c. Connective tissue
b. Epithelial cells d. Glandular tissue

3. Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
a. Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
d. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

4. Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized?
a. Dysplasia c. Myoplasia
b. Hyperplasia d. Anaplasia

5. What are tumor cell markers?
a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells
b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells
d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy

6. The function of the tumor cell marker is to:
a. Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer.
b. Treat certain types of cancer.
c. Predict where cancers will develop.
d. Screen individuals at high risk for cancer.

7. Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in the development of colon cancer?
a. Cancer cells accumulate slower than noncancer cells.
b. An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.
c. Tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
d. Apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli, including excessive growth.

8. Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to:
a. Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply.
b. Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors.
c. Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth.
d. Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use.

9. Apoptosis is a(an):
a. Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
b. Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
c. Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
d. Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia

10. Many cancers create a mutation of ras. ras is a(an):
a. Tumor-suppressor gene
b. Growth-promoting gene
c. Intracellular-signaling protein that regulates cell growth
d. Cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus concerning cell growth

11. Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:
a. Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
b. Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
c. Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
d. Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis

12. Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a. Point mutation c. Gene amplification
b. Chromosome translocation d. Chromosome fusion

13. In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of normal gene to oncogene?
a. Point mutation c. Gene amplification
b. Chromosome fusion d. Chromosome translocation

14. What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?
a. Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
b. The tumor-suppressor gene is turned off.
c. Genetic amplification causes the growth.
d. Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

15. Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b. The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c. Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.
d. The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.

16. The ras gene converts from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene by:
a. Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
b. Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies
c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs
d. Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes

17. How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?
a. To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth
b. As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division
c. To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely

18. What are characteristics of benign tumors?
a. Benign tumors invade local tissues.
b. Benign tumors spread through the lymph nodes.
c. Benign tumors cause systemic symptoms.
d. Benign tumors include the suffix -oma.

19. Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
a. Liposarcoma, lipoma c. Adisarcoma, adipoma
b. Lipoma, liposarcoma d. Adipoma, adisarcoma

20. What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
a. Herpes simplex virus type 6 c. Human papillomavirus
b. Herpes simplex virus type 2 d. Human immunodeficiency virus

21. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
a. Ovarian c. Cervical
b. Uterine d. Vaginal

22. What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
a. Infection c. Pain
b. Ultraviolet damage d. Erythema

23. Which cancers are all associated with chronic inflammation?
a. Brain, muscle, and endocrine
b. Colon, thyroid gland, and urinary bladder
c. Bone, blood cells, and liver
d. Eye, tracheal, and kidney

24. Chronic inflammation causes cancer by:
a. Increasing vasodilation and permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage
b. Liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged that initiates mutations
c. Releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations
d. Increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers

25. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
a. Proto-oncogenes c. Tumor-suppressor genes
b. Oncogenes d. Growth-promoting genes

26. What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation?
a. Cells undergo apoptosis. c. Cells receive less oxygen.
b. Cells escape apoptosis. d. Cells adhere more readily.

27. Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and radiation therapy?
a. Increased cell turnover c. Stomatitis
b. Constipation d. Bloody stool

28. What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?
a. To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
b. To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
c. To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
d. To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels

29. It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding?
a. Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.
b. Cancer has spread to regional structures.
c. Cancer is locally invasive.
d. Cancer has spread to distant sites

30. Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?
a. Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
b. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
c. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
d. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.

31. Which cancer may be treated with radiation delivered by brachytherapy?
a. Lung c. Cervical
b. Colon d. Brain

32. The survival rate for stage IV Hodgkin disease can be as high as:
a. 99% c. 40%
b. 70% d. 20%

33. What is the cause of anemia in a patient diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
a. Impaired pancreatic function c. Chronic bleeding
b. Malnutrition d. Malabsorption of iron

34. By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?
a. Proto-oncogene c. Reliance on caretaker genes
b. Autocrine stimulation d. Pleomorphology

35. What is the role of caretaker genes?
a. Maintenance of genomic integrity c. Secretion of growth factors
b. Proliferation of cancer cells d. Restoration of normal tissue structure

36. In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a:
a. Basal cell c. Caretaker gene
b. Target cell d. Proto-oncogene

37. Which statement is true regarding pleomorphic cells?
a. Pleomorphic cells are similar in size.
b. They share a common shape.
c. They are a result of anaplasia.
d. Pleomorphic cells differentiate uniformly.

38. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
a. Nausea c. Hair loss
b. Fatigue d. Weight loss

39. The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?
a. Bones c. Bladder
b. Brain d. Kidney

40. Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?
a. The resulting pain is severe. c. Benign tumors are fast growing.
b. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. d. The cells are well-differentiated.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

41. Normally, which cells are considered immortal (never die)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Germ
b. Stem
c. Blood
d. Epithelial
e. Muscle

42. What is the most common route for distant metastasis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Seeding
b. Blood
c. Lymphatic vessels
d. Invasion
e. Proliferation

43. What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply.)
a. Size
b. Ability to differentiate
c. Life expectancy
d. Tissue structure
e. Shape

44. What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections among patients with cancer? (Select all that apply.)
a. Indwelling medical devices
b. Suppressed immune system
c. Visitor-introduced microorganisms
d. Poor appetite
e. Inadequate wound care

45. Which statements concerning aging and the occurrence of cancer are true? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decline in immunologic functions
b. Predisposition to nutritional inadequacies
c. Unwillingness to access health care services
d. Reluctance to engage in cancer screenings
e. Effects of immobility on the immune system

MATCHING

Match the phrases with the corresponding terms.
______ A. Is the process of cancer cell growth.
______ B. Is used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures.
______ C. Is guided by molecular analysis in specific diseases.
______ D. Takes advantage of specific vulnerabilities in specific cancer cells.
______ E. Provides a framework to determine treatment.

46. Chemotherapy

47. Radiation

48. Staging

49. Angiogenesis

50. Target agent

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