Quiz 26: Sexually Transmitted Infections

Questions 36
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Quiz 26: Sexually Transmitted Infections

Questions 36
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial


1. What unique factor causes adolescent girls to have a high risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
a. They are in an experimental phase with sexual intercourse and believe they are resistant to developing STIs.
b. The adolescent cervix is immature and lacks immunity.
c. The length of the vaginal canal is short in adolescents, allowing a greater concentration of microorganisms within the internal genitalia.
d. In adolescent girls, the anus to the vaginal introitus are in close proximity.

2. How is gonorrhea transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus?
a. Unbound in the blood via the placenta
b. Attached to immunoglobulin G (IgG) via the placenta
c. Across amniotic membranes by the direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes during labor monitoring
d. Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process

3. Which statement is false about the factors that facilitate the ascent of gonococci into the uterus and fallopian tubes?
a. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the cervical plug disintegrates during menstruation.
b. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3.
c. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the uterine contractions may cause retrograde menstruation into the fallopian tubes.
d. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the bacteria may adhere to sperm and be transported to the fallopian tubes.

4. In women, what is the usual site of original gonococcal infection?
a. Endocervical canal c. Fallopian tube
b. Vagina d. Labia majora

5. What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?
a. Epididymis c. Urethra
b. Lymph nodes d. Prostate

6. What local complication of a gonococcal infection is diagnosed in approximately 10% of affected women?
a. Acute salpingitis c. Vaginitis
b. Cystitis d. Cervicitis

7. Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?
a. Ligase chain reaction (LCR) c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
b. Gram-stain technique d. DNA testing

8. How does an established gonococcal infection usually express itself in newborns?
a. Generalized skin rash 4 to 6 days after birth
b. Systemic infection with fever
c. Bilateral corneal ulceration
d. Yellow vaginal or penile discharge approximately 10 days after birth

9. What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections?
a. Development of antibiotic resistance c. Changes in pathogenicity
b. Changes in virulence d. Mutations into different strains

10. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
a. Syphilis c. Chlamydia
b. Herpes simplex virus d. Chancroid

11. During which stage of syphilis do bloodborne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems?
a. Primary c. Latent
b. Secondary d. Tertiary

12. In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis?
a. Primary c. Latent
b. Secondary d. Tertiary

13. Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?
a. Neisseria syphilis c. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Treponema pallidum d. Chlamydia trachomatis

14. Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis?
a. Condylomata lata c. Chancroid
b. Gummas d. Donovan bodies

15. By which method is the organism that causes syphilis best identified?
a. Acid-fast stain c. In vitro culture
b. Gram-stained slide d. Darkfield microscopy

16. When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?
a. Genital herpes c. Syphilis
b. Chancroid d. Chlamydia

17. Which statement is false regarding the risk of transmission of the herpes simplex virus (HSV) from mother to fetus?
a. Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.
b. The risk is higher in women who have a primary HSV infection.
c. The risk is higher in women who experience ruptured membranes more than 6 hours before delivery.
d. The risk is higher when internal fetal monitoring devices are used.

18. During the latent period of a herpes virus infection, where in the host cell is the genome of the virus maintained?
a. Mitochondria c. Nucleus
b. Lysosomes d. Cytoplasm

19. During reactivation (release from latency), herpes virus genomes are transported through which nerves to the dermal surface?
a. Somatic c. Autonomic
b. Peripheral sensory d. Peripheral motor

20. Which statement provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
a. HSV is transmitted only when vesicles are present.
b. HSV is transmitted only while lesions are present.
c. The use of condoms prevents the transmission of HSV.
d. The risk of transmission is present even during latent periods.

21. Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections?
a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) c. Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir)
b. 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) d. Bichloroacetic acid (BCA)

22. Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts?
a. Chlamydia c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Adenovirus d. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)

23. Which treatment is used for trichomoniasis?
a. Topical application of 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
b. Topical application of acyclovir
c. Systemic metronidazole
d. Systemic tetracycline

24. A woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis asks if her sexual partner should be treated as well. What is the appropriate response?
a. Sexual partners should be treated only if symptoms are present.
b. Sexual partners should be treated even if they are asymptomatic.
c. Infections in men are self-limiting; therefore a male sexual partner does not require treatment.
d. Sexual partners should be treated to prevent infection.

25. Which microorganism is sexually transmitted, primarily by homosexual men, through infected feces?
a. Shigellosis c. Giardia lamblia
b. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) d. Entamoeba histolytica

26. Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?
a. A c. C
b. B d. D

27. Which sexually transmitted disease occasionally causes clinical manifestations of scant intermittent penile discharge, slight pruritus, and mild dysuria?
a. Campylobacter enteritis c. Cytomegalovirus enteritis
b. Shigellosis d. Trichomoniasis


28. Which statements are true regarding the hepatitis B infection? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hepatitis B poses a significant risk for chronic liver disease.
b. Hepatocellular cancer is a common comorbid condition.
c. Universal vaccination of infants and children is recommended.
d. The preventive method of choice is immunization.
e. Universal vaccination of sexually active adults is recommended.

29. What are the common modes of transmission for the hepatitis B virus (HBV)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Needle punctures
b. Blood transfusions
c. Contact with infected body fluids
d. Skin cuts
e. Ingestion of infected substances

30. Which statements are true regarding the parasitic infection referred to as scabies? (Select all that apply.)
a. Scabies is spread through skin-to-skin contact.
b. The crab lice, Phthirus pubis, cause scabies.
c. Severe pruritus is its major clinical manifestation.
d. Symptoms worsen at night.
e. Treatment is provided through oral medication therapy.

31. Which statements are true concerning the sexually transmitted infection (STI) lymphogranuloma venereum? (Select all that apply.)
a. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an STI commonly diagnosed in the United States.
b. It begins as a skin infection.
c. Lymphogranuloma venereum spreads to lymph tissues.
d. Primary and secondary lesions are apparent with this STI.
e. A 60-day course of oral erythromycin is the recommended treatment.


Match the disease with the corresponding causative organism.
______A. Trichomoniasis
______B. Granuloma inguinale
______C. Amebiasis
______D. Syphilis
______E. Chancroid

32. Treponema pallidum

33. Haemophilus ducreyi

34. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

35. Entamoeba histolytica

36. Trichomonas vaginalis

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