Quiz 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function

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Quiz 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function

Questions 53
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
a. Release of the inflammatory cytokines
b. Macrophages adhere to vessel walls.
c. Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls
d. Release of the platelet-deprived growth factor

2. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
a. LDLs cause smooth muscle proliferation.
b. LDLs cause regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c. LDLs increase levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d. LDLs direct macrophages to the site in the endothelium.

3. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a. Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b. Interferon-beta (IFN-), interleukin 6 (IL-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
c. Tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-), interferon-gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (IL-1)
d. Interferon-alpha (IFN-), interleukin-12 (IL-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

4. When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
a. The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).
b. Cells are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c. Cells produce an increased amount of antithrombotic cytokines.
d. Cells develop a hypersensitivity to homocysteine and lipids.

5. Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a. Increased norepinephrine c. Angiotensin II
b. Adducin d. Insulin resistance

6. What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
a. Compression of the renal tubules
b. Ischemia of the tubule
c. Increased pressure from within the tubule
d. Obstruction of the renal tubule

7. What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
a. Atherosclerosis causes ischemia of the intima.
b. It increases nitric oxide.
c. Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall.
d. It obstructs the vessel.

8. Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
a. Inflammation and roughening of the endothelium of the artery are present.
b. Hypertrophy and vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery are present.
c. Excessive clot formation and lipid accumulation in the endothelium of the artery are present.
d. Evidence of age-related changes that weaken the endothelium of the artery are present.

9. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a. Deep venous thrombosis c. Valvular disease
b. Endocarditis d. Left heart failure

10. Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
a. Amniotic fluid c. Bacteria
b. Fat d. Air

11. Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a. Inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b. Vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, of the toes
c. Autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d. Neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities

12. Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
a. Inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b. Neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities
c. Vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, of the toes
d. Autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities

13. What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
a. Increase in osmotic pressure c. Damage to the venous endothelium
b. Damage to the valves in veins d. Increase in hydrostatic pressure

14. Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
a. Inflammation c. Distention
b. Occlusion d. Sclerosis

15. What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
a. Infarction c. Necrosis
b. Ischemia d. Inflammation

16. The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
a. Diabetes mellitus c. Obesity
b. Hypertension d. High alcohol consumption

17. Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
a. Diabetes mellitus c. Obesity
b. Hypertension d. High alcohol consumption

18. Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
a. Histamine c. Angiotensin II
b. Nitric oxide d. Epinephrine

19. Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
a. Very low–density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
c. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
d. Triglycerides

20. Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
a. Very low–density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
c. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs
d. Triglycerides

21. Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a. Homocysteine
b. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d. C-reactive protein (CRP)

22. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
a. 10 c. 20
b. 15 d. 25

23. Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
a. Unstable c. Silent
b. Stable d. Prinzmetal

24. When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
a. Between 5 and 9 days c. Between 15 and 20 days
b. Between 10 and 14 days d. Between 20 and 30 days

25. An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
a. Myocardial ischemia c. Myocardial infarction (MI)
b. Hypertension d. Coronary artery disease (CAD)

26. What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a. Prolonged QT interval
b. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)
c. ST depression myocardial infarction (STDMI)
d. Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI)

27. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
a. By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction
b. By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c. By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d. By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system

28. The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is caused by a dysfunction in which mechanism?
a. Diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles
b. Blood ejected from the right atrium and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle
c. Blood ejected from the left atrium and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle
d. Diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

29. A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
a. Myocardial infarction (MI) c. Restrictive pericarditis
b. Pericardial effusion d. Acute pericarditis

30. Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
a. Congestive c. Septal
b. Hypertrophic d. Dystrophic

31. A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
a. Dystrophic c. Restrictive
b. Hypertrophic d. Dilated

32. Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?
a. Infiltrative c. Septal
b. Restrictive d. Hypertrophic

33. Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
a. Congenital malformation c. Rheumatic fever
b. Cardiac failure d. Coronary artery disease (CAD)

34. Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
a. Mitral valve prolapse c. Tricuspid valve prolapse
b. Tricuspid stenosis d. Aortic insufficiency

35. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a. Fat emboli
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Bacterial endocarditis
d. Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

36. What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
a. Virus c. Bacterium
b. Fungus d. Rickettsiae

37. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
a. Cardiomyopathy c. Left heart failure
b. Myocarditis d. Heart block

38. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
a. Right heart failure c. Low-output failure
b. Left heart failure d. High-output failure

39. What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
a. Left ventricular hypertrophy c. Myocardial ischemia
b. Right ventricular failure d. Contractile dysfunction

40. In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
a. Increases preload and decreases afterload.
b. Increases preload and increases afterload.
c. Decreases preload and increases afterload.
d. Decreases preload and decreases afterload.

41. What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
a. Pressure on surrounding organs c. Formation of atherosclerotic lesions
b. Poor oxygenation d. Impaired blood flow

42. Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
a. Cell production of cholesterol is affected by the aging process.
b. Cells produce cholesterol only when dietary fat intake is low.
c. Most body cells are capable of producing cholesterol.
d. Most cholesterol produced by the cells is converted to the low-density form.

43. What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
a. Atherosclerotic lesions c. Myocardial necrosis
b. Hyperlipidemia d. Myocardial ischemia

44. Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthy decline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
a. Managed carbohydrate intake
b. Appropriate exercise
c. Insulin-sensitivity medication therapy
d. Introduction of minimal doses of insulin

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

45. Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.)
a. Fatty streaks progressively damage vessel walls.
b. Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
c. When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
d. Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
e. Fatty streaks are formed by killer T cells filled with oxidized LDLs.

46. What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
a. Altered body chemistry
b. Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
c. Prolonged immobility
d. Effects of aging on postural reflexes
e. Any condition that produces volume overload

47. Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Jugular vein distention
b. Bounding pulses
c. Hypotension
d. Angina
e. Syncope

48. Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Intravenous drug use
c. Long-term indwelling catheterization
d. Aortic regurgitation
e. Heart valve disease

MATCHING

Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
______ A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
______ B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
______ C. Backflow into left atrium
______ D. Backflow into right atrium
______ E. Backflow into left ventricle

49. Aortic stenosis

50. Aortic regurgitation

51. Mitral stenosis

52. Tricuspid regurgitation

53. Mitral regurgitation

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