Quiz 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument

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Quiz 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument

Questions 43
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which component of the epidermis initiates immune responses and provides a defense against environmental antigens?
a. Langerhans cells c. Keratinocytes
b. Merkel cells d. Melanocytes

2. Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin?
a. Histiocytes c. Mast cells
b. Fibroblasts d. Macrophages

3. Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?
a. Macrophages c. Fibroblasts
b. Mast cells d. Histiocytes

4. Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation?
a. Sebaceous c. Eccrine
b. Apocrine d. Exocrine

5. Which receptors of the sympathetic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?
a. Cholinergic c. -Adrenergic
b. ß-Adrenergic d. Anticholinergic

6. What is the first change in the skin that indicates a pressure ulcer?
a. Blanchable erythema of intact skin
b. Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
c. Blister at the site of pressure
d. Reddish-purple discoloration

7. Which type of dressings should be applied to pressure ulcers?
a. Flat and dry c. Bulky and dry
b. Flat and moist d. Bulky and moist

8. What term is used to identify skin lesions that are elevated, rounded, and firm with irregular clawlike margins that extend beyond the original site of injury?
a. Psoriasis c. Acne
b. Dermatitis d. Keloid

9. Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of which substance in the corneum during connective tissue repair?
a. Elastin c. Stroma
b. Collagen d. Reticular fibers

10. In allergic contact dermatitis, which cells possess the antigens and present them to T cells?
a. Langerhans cells c. Keratinocytes
b. Merkel cells d. Macrophages

11. In latex allergies, which immunoglobulin (Ig) is associated with an immediate reaction?
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgE d. IgM

12. What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border?
a. Eczema c. Atopic dermatitis
b. Psoriasis d. Pityriasis rosea

13. What clinical manifestations do allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common?
a. Petechiae and hyperpigmentation c. Scaling and crusting of lesions
b. Edema and vesicular lesions d. Erythema and pruritus

14. Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous characterize which type of psoriasis?
a. Plaque c. Guttate
b. Inverse d. Erythrodermic

15. Which skin disorder begins with a single lesion that is circular, demarcated, and salmon pink, measures approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter, and is usually located on the trunk?
a. Lichen planus c. Psoriasis
b. Pityriasis rosea d. Acne rosacea

16. Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus?
a. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) c. Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
b. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) d. Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

17. Which term is used to identify a collection of infected hair follicles occurring most often on the back of the neck, the upper back, and the lateral thighs that forms a mass and evolves into an erythematous, painful, and edematous mass and drains through many openings?
a. Erysipelas c. Carbuncles
b. Furuncles d. Boils

18. Chickenpox (varicella) may be followed years later by which disorder?
a. Erysipelas c. Warts (Verrucae)
b. Cytomegalovirus d. Herpes zoster

19. What type of skin infection is tinea corporis (ringworm)?
a. Nematode c. Viral
b. Fungal d. Bacterial

20. Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _________________.
a. Immune complexes c. Complement proteins
b. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) d. T lymphocytes

21. Which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)–stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, or kallikrein from mast cells?
a. Dermatitis c. Urticaria
b. Scleroderma d. Cutaneous vasculitis

22. Scleroderma is associated with _________________.
a. X-linked recessive gene c. Virus
b. X-linked dominant gene d. Autoantibodies

23. What name is given to a benign proliferation of basal cells that produces smooth or warty elevated lesions on the chest, back, and face that are tan or waxy, yellow, flesh-colored, or dark brown to black?
a. Basal keratosis c. Keratoacanthoma
b. Seborrheic keratosis d. Actinic keratosis

24. Lesions that usually have depressed centers with rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck characterize which malignancy?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Malignant melanoma
b. Kaposi sarcoma d. Basal cell carcinoma

25. The alteration of which gene is associated with basal cell carcinoma?
a. myc c. src
b. TP53 d. Ras

26. Bowen disease is a form of which type of cancer?
a. Kaposi sarcoma c. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Malignant melanoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma

27. A small (less than 1 cm) lesion with regular edges and bristlelike hairs with a color change that can range from skin tones to light brown characterize which form of nevus?
a. Junctional c. Intradermal
b. Epidermal d. Compound

28. Which cell is thought to be the progenitor cell of Kaposi sarcoma?
a. Endothelial c. Melanocyte
b. Keratinocyte d. Exothelial

29. Which intervention is included in the treatment of frostbite?
a. Applying local, dry heat c. Immersing in warm water
b. Rubbing or massaging the area d. Leaving the area uncovered

30. What is the purpose of administering ibuprofen to individuals being treated for frostbite?
a. Treating fever c. Reducing pain
b. Preventing plate aggregation d. Inhibiting prostaglandins

31. What is the medical term for a fungal infection of the nail plate?
a. Paronychia c. Tinea corporis
b. Onychomycosis d. Tinea capitis

32. What term is used to identify an inflamed hair root?
a. Tinea c. Furuncle
b. Verruca d. Erysipelas

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

33. What effect does normal aging have on the wound healing process? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decreased cell proliferation
b. Decreased blood supply
c. Depressed immune responses
d. Depressed appetite
e. Decreased cognitive function

34. Which statements are true regarding a nevus? (Select all that apply.)
a. A nevus is an aggregation of melanocytes
b. Nevi begin to form at the ages of 3 to 5 years.
c. Nevi are characterized by irregular borders.
d. Nevi share a relationship with melanoma.
e. Nevi always warrant being removed.

35. Which statements are true regarding Kaposi sarcoma? (Select all that apply.)
a. South America has been the site of the endemic form of Kaposi sarcoma.
b. Kaposi sarcoma is a vascular malignancy.
c. It is associated with drug-induced immunosuppression.
d. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
e. Presentation of the classic form of Kaposi sarcoma is observed on the lower legs of older men.

36. Which medications may exacerbate existing psoriasis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Antibiotics
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
d. Beta blockers
e. Lithium

37. Which inflammatory mediators are active in frostbite? (Select all that apply.)
a. Leukotrienes
b. Histamine
c. Prostaglandins
d. Bradykinin
e. Thromboxanes

38. Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with which condition? (Select all that apply.)
a. Adrenal hyperplasia
b. Cushing disease
c. Polycystic ovaries
d. Addison disease
e. Adrenal tumor

MATCHING

Match the descriptions of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.
______ A. Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
______ B. Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
______ C. Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
______ D. Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
______ E. Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter

39. Urticaria, allergic reaction

40. Varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles)

41. Wart (verruca) or lichen planus

42. Psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses

43. Nevus (flat mole)

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