Quiz 58: Diagnostic Procedures Perry et al.: Clinical Nursing Skills & Techniques, 9th Edition

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Quiz 58: Diagnostic Procedures
Perry et al.: Clinical Nursing Skills & Techniques, 9th Edition

Questions 30
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A nurse should contact the physician to postpone intravenous moderate sedation if the patient:
a. has been nothing by mouth (NPO) for 1 hour.
b. has a history of substance abuse.
c. has no history of latex allergy.
d. has demonstrated an understanding of the procedure.

2. Which action should the nurse take after a procedure requiring intravenous moderate sedation?
a. Report to the physician a Ramsay sedation score that is less than 3.
b. Monitor airway patency and vital signs every 5 minutes for 30 minutes.
c. Take vital signs every 15 minutes for the next 2 hours.
d. Take vital signs every 30 minutes until stable.

3. Under which circumstances should a nurse contact the physician to postpone an angiography?
a. If a patient has been nothing by mouth (NPO) for only 1 hour.
b. If a patient’s femoral site has been shaved and cleansed with an antiseptic.
c. If the patient received Benadryl as a preprocedure medication.
d. When test results reveal a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/100 mL and a creatinine level of 0.8 mg/mL.

4. What action should the nurse take after an angiography?
a. Limit the patient’s fluid intake.
b. Have the patient ambulate as soon as possible.
c. Apply a pressure dressing to the vascular site.
d. Maintain the patient in a sitting position while he or she is in bed.

5. The nurse is alert to a possible delayed reaction to the dye injected during an angiography. For which response should she monitor the patient?
a. Pallor
b. Dyspnea
c. Thirst
d. Numbness and tingling

6. The nurse is preparing to assist with a bone marrow aspiration on a 3-month-old infant. The nurse may expect that the physician will use which site to perform the aspiration?
a. Sternum
b. Anterior iliac crest
c. Proximal tibia
d. Posterior iliac crest

7. The nurse is discussing the patient’s upcoming elective lumbar puncture, and explains that the patient will probably need to undergo computed tomography of the brain before the procedure is done. What is the reason for this?
a. Diagnose central nervous system (CNS) infection.
b. Rule out increased intracranial pressure.
c. Visualize cerebrospinal fluid.
d. Measure pressure in the subarachnoid space.

8. The patient is a 56-year-old man who has terminal cirrhosis and severe ascites. He is lethargic but is demonstrating signs of discomfort and respiratory distress. The physician has spoken with the patient’s wife and has obtained consent to perform an abdominal paracentesis on the patient. After the physician leaves to prepare for the procedure, the wife asks the nurse whether the procedure is really necessary. The nurse should respond by saying this:
a. is the first step in the patient’s recovery.
b. may help the patient feel better.
c. is needed to detect increased intracranial pressure.
d. is needed to analyze pleural fluid.

9. Which is the appropriate patient position for a lumbar puncture?
a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Sims’
d. Lateral recumbent

10. In which position is the patient usually placed for a thoracentesis?
a. Dorsal recumbent position
b. Supine with the arms over the head
c. Sims’ position on the affected side
d. Sitting and leaning over a bedside table

11. When explaining about a lumbar puncture, the nurse informs the patient that during the procedure, he or she will be asked to:
a. remain very still.
b. cough during the fluid aspiration.
c. change position.
d. breathe deeply during the needle insertion.

12. When explaining what to expect during a bronchoscopy, the nurse informs the patient that:
a. an anesthetic solution will be swallowed.
b. the tube will be passed through the nose.
c. nothing will be given by mouth for 2 to 3 hours before.
d. no food or fluid will be provided until the gag reflex returns.

13. The physician needs to visually examine a patient’s esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order:
a. endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).
b. esophagoscopy.
c. esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD).
d. proctoscopy.

14. A patient who is a candidate for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy has:
a. been NPO for 8 hours.
b. evident respiratory distress.
c. active gastrointestinal bleeding.
d. an esophageal diverticulum.

15. For an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, a nurse should:
a. remove the patient’s dentures.
b. suction the patient every 5 minutes.
c. place the patient in high-Fowler’s position.
d. provide fluids immediately after the test is finished.

16. During an electrocardiogram, the patient should anticipate that:
a. chest pain may occur.
b. the electrode sites will be cleaned with alcohol.
c. talking and moving around will be allowed.
d. the electrodes are attached with ties or rubber straps.

17. The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a cardiac catheterization. The sheaths have just been removed. You should assess the patient carefully for what potential complication?
a. Vasovagal reaction
b. Hypertension
c. Tachycardia
d. Allergic reaction

18. The nurse is caring for a patient who has received moderate sedation for a procedure at the bedside. Which task can be delegated to the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) during this procedure?
a. Assessing sedation score
b. Obtaining blood pressure
c. Monitoring respiratory rate
d. Recording urine output

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. The patient will be undergoing moderate intravenous (IV) sedation. The nurse needs to assess which of the following during the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
a. Airway compromise
b. Hemodynamic instability
c. Agitation
d. Combativeness

2. The patient has undergone a cardiac catheterization. It has been 2 hours since the catheter and sheath have been removed. Which of the following would be a concern for the nurse recovering the patient after the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
a. Swelling and hardness at the catheter insertion site
b. Complaints of itching and urticaria
c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr
d. Low back pain radiating to both sides of the body

3. Both aspiration and biopsy diagnose and differentiate which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Leukemia
b. Certain malignancies
c. Heart disease
d. Thrombocytopenia/anemia

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone a bronchoscopy and has been in recovery for the last 15 minutes. The nurse should be especially watchful for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Return of the gag reflex
b. Laryngospasm
c. Respiratory status
d. Facial or neck crepitus

COMPLETION

1. _____________________ is often used for diagnostic or surgical procedures that do not require complete anesthesia in acute care, surgical care, and outpatient care settings.

2. _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.

3. _____________ is a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation. In addition, no interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.

4. An _______________ permits visualization of the vasculature of an organ and the organ’s arterial system.

5. A specialized form of angiography in which a catheter is inserted into the left or right side of the heart via a major peripheral vessel to study pressures within the heart, cardiac volumes, valvular function, and patency of coronary arteries is known as ______________.

6. ____________ are sterile invasive procedures involving the removal of body fluids or tissue for diagnostic procedures.

7. The removal of a small amount of the liquid organic material in the medullary canals of selected bones, in particular the sternum and the posterior superior iliac crests in adults, is known as _______________.

8. A _____________ involves the introduction of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column. The purpose of this test is to measure pressure in the subarachnoid space; obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for visualization and laboratory examination; and inject anesthetic, diagnostic, or therapeutic agents.

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