Quiz 8: Adaptive Immunity

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Quiz 8: Adaptive Immunity

Questions 43
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response?
a. The immune response is similar each time it is activated.
b. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it.
c. The response to a specific pathogen is short term.
d. The response is innate, rather than acquired.

2. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
a. Thymus gland c. Bone marrow
b. Regional lymph nodes d. Spleen

3. What is the term for the process during which lymphoid stem cells migrate and change into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells?
a. Clonal diversity c. Clonal selection
b. Clonal differentiation d. Clonal competence

4. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
a. Passive-acquired immunity c. Passive-innate immunity
b. Active-acquired immunity d. Active-innate immunity

5. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
a. Passive-acquired immunity c. Passive-innate immunity
b. Active-acquired immunity d. Active-innate immunity

6. The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
a. Immunotope c. Epitope
b. Paratope d. Antigenitope

7. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen?
a. Size c. Complexity
b. Foreignness d. Quantity

8. When antigens are administered to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration considered?
a. Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with the intravenous route being the fastest.
b. Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen.
c. Antigen-presenting cells are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes.
d. Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue, resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.

9. The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
a. Are antigen-presenting molecules.
b. Bind antigens to antibodies.
c. Secrete interleukins during the immune process.
d. Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

10. Where are antibodies produced?
a. Helper T lymphocytes c. Plasma cells
b. Thymus gland d. Bone marrow

11. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgE d. IgM

12. Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response?
a. IgG c. IgA
b. IgM d. IgE

13. An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?
a. IgG c. IgA
b. IgM d. IgE

14. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
a. Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell
b. Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells
c. Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
d. Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

15. The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?
a. Fetal c. Infancy
b. Neonatal d. Puberty

16. The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
a. Involves antigens that select those lymphocytes with compatible receptors.
b. Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells.
c. Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs.
d. Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations.

17. Which statement is true concerning clonal selection?
a. Clonal selection is driven by hormones and does not require foreign antigens.
b. This theory involves antigens that select those lymphocytes with compatible receptors.
c. Clonal selection takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs.
d. This process generates immature but immunocompetent T and B cells with receptors.

18. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
a. Yeast c. Bacteria
b. Cancer cells d. Fungus

19. Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell?
a. IL-1 c. IL-4
b. IL-2 d. IL-12

20. Th2 cells produce IL-4 and suppress which cells?
a. B lymphocytes c. Th1 cells
b. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes d. Memory T lymphocytes

21. Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th1 cells?
a. Th1 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens.
b. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.
c. Th1 cells produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13.
d. They assist in the development of humoral immunity.

22. Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th2 cells?
a. Th2 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens.
b. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.
c. Th2 cells produce IL-2, TNF-ß, and IFN- .
d. They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity.

23. When a person is exposed to most antigens, antibodies can be usually detected in his or her circulation within:
a. 12 hours c. 3 days
b. 24 hours d. 6 days

24. Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
a. Strong response from IgM c. Memory cells for IgE
b. Level of protection provided by IgG d. Rapid response from IgA

25. Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
a. The virus does not circulate in the blood.
b. It does not have antibody receptors.
c. It resists agglutination.
d. The virus is a soluble antigen.

26. Increased age may cause which change in lymphocyte function?
a. Increased production of antibodies against self-antigens
b. Decreased number of circulating T cells
c. Decreased production of autoantibodies
d. Increased production of helper T cells

27. How do antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins?
a. Lysing the cell membrane of the toxins
b. Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects
c. Inhibiting the synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth
d. Interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication

28. Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host’s own tissues against an autoimmune response?
a. Cytotoxic T cells c. Th2 cells
b. Th1 cells d. Regulatory T (Treg) cells

29. Evaluation of umbilical cord blood can confirm that which immunoglobulin level is near adult levels?
a. IgA c. IgM
b. IgG d. IgE

30. Which statement is true concerning the IgM?
a. IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen.
b. IgM mediates many common allergic responses.
c. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins.
d. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta.

31. Which cell has the ability to recognize antigens presented by the MHC class I molecules?
a. T cytotoxic c. CD 8
b. CD 4 d. T helper

32. Which cell has a role in developing cell-mediated immunity?
a. Th1 c. CD8
b. CD4 d. Th2

33. How does the aging process of the T-cell activity affect older adults?
a. Poor heat regulation abilities
b. Increased risk for bone fractures
c. Tendency to develop various infections
d. Likelihood of experiencing benign skin lesions

34. Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?
a. The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.
b. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.
c. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.
d. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age.

35. Antibodies that are associated with mucosal immune system, such as immunoglobulins, function to prevent which type of infections?
a. Infections that attack the respiratory system
b. Infections that tend to be chronic in nature
c. Infections likely to be resistant to antibiotics
d. Infections that focus on epithelial surfaces of the body

36. Cytokines are vital to a cell’s ability to do which function?
a. Excrete c. Metabolize
b. Reproduce d. Communicate

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

37. Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person? (Select all that apply.)
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Tetanus
d. Gonorrhea
e. Diphtheria

38. Which statements are true concerning the humoral immune response? (Select all that apply.)
a. The humoral immune response is divided into major and minor phases.
b. The response has IgG and IgM produced during each of its phrases.
c. It has a greater presence of IgG than IgM in one of its phases.
d. The humoral immune response is produced in reaction to the presence of an antigen.
e. Phases differ in their response time as a result of the effect of memory cells.

39. CD4 is a characteristic surface marker and a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Activity in the primary lymphoid organs
b. Process of cellular differentiation
c. Alterations to T cells
d. Changes to B cells
e. Clonal selection

40. What are the necessary components of an adaptive immune response? (Select all that apply.)
a. Antigen
b. Gamma IgG
c. Lymphocyte surface receptors
d. Crystalline fragment
e. Antibody

MATCHING

Match each immunoglobulin with its characteristic or function. Each immunoglobulin can be used only once.
______ A. IgA
______ B. IgE
______ C. IgG

41. Crosses the placenta.

42. Is predominantly found in the blood and body secretions.

43. Mediates many common allergic responses

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