Quiz 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation

Questions 40
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Quiz 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation

Questions 40
Instructor Verified Answers Included
WarofGrades Guaranteed A+ Graded Tutorial

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an):
a. Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens
b. Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person
c. Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
d. Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens

2. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
a. Hemolytic shock c. Necrotizing vasculitis
b. Anaphylaxis d. Systemic erythematosus

3. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
a. IgE c. IgM
b. IgG d. T cells

4. Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgE d. IgM

5. Blood transfusion reactions are an example of:
a. Autoimmunity c. Homoimmunity
b. Alloimmunity d. Hypersensitivity

6. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
a. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils
b. Monocytes d. T lymphocytes

7. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?
a. Bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis
b. Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody
c. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors
d. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors

8. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?
a. Histamine bound to H2
b. Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor
c. Epinephrine bound to mast cells
d. Acetylcholine bound to mast cells

9. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
a. Greater quantities of histamine c. Greater quantities of IgE
b. More histamine receptors d. A deficiency in epinephrine

10. What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
a. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
b. Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
c. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
d. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

11. When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by:
a. Complement-mediated cell lysis c. Phagocytosis in the spleen
b. Phagocytosis by macrophages d. Natural killer cells

12. When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by:
a. Complement-mediated cell lysis
b. Phagocytosis by macrophages
c. Phagocytosis in the spleen
d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

13. When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
a. Complement-mediated cell lysis
b. Phagocytosis by macrophages
c. Phagocytosis in the spleen
d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

14. How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Complement-mediated cell lysis
b. Phagocytosis by macrophages
c. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
d. Natural killer cells

15. Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Modulation
b. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
c. Neutrophil-mediated damage
d. Complement-mediated lysis

16. Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?
a. Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
c. Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
d. Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface

17. A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result?
a. Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
c. Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
d. Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface

18. In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of:
a. Cytotoxic T cells c. Complement activation
b. Natural killer cells d. Degranulation of mast cells

19. Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to:
a. Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
b. Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation
c. Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues
d. Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species

20. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
a. Iron c. Iodine
b. Zinc d. Magnesium

21. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?
a. T-cell immunity c. Fetal immunity
b. Alloimmunity d. Autoimmunity

22. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
a. Hemolytic anemia c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Pernicious anemia d. Myasthenia gravis

23. Why does tissue damage occurs in acute rejection after organ transplantation?
a. Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
b. Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
c. Receptors on natural killer cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
d. Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.

24. Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?
a. Platelets c. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils d. Erythrocytes

25. A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of which anti-antibodies?
a. A c. A and B
b. B d. O

26. Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins?
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgE d. IgM

27. Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast?
a. Natural killer cells c. B cells
b. Macrophages d. T cells

28. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?
a. Bruton disease c. Reticular dysgenesis
b. DiGeorge syndrome d. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

29. How many months does it take for the newborn to be sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells?
a. 1 to 2 c. 6 to 8
b. 4 to 5 d. 10 to 12

30. Considering the effects of nutritional deficiencies on the immune system, severe deficits in calories and protein lead to deficiencies in the formation of which immune cells?
a. B cells c. Natural killer cells
b. T cells d. Neutrophils

31. Urticaria are a manifestation of a which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IV c. II
b. III d. I

32. Graves disease is a result of:
a. Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins
b. The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes
c. Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites
d. Exposure to acetylates in substances such as rubber

33. Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
a. IV c. II
b. III d. I

34. Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual?
a. They tend to produce less IgE.
b. They tend to produce more Fc receptors.
c. They tend to attract very few mast cells.
d. They tend to produce very high levels of IgM.

35. Which statement is true regarding immunodeficiency?
a. Immunodeficiency is generally not present in other family members.
b. Immunodeficiency is never acquired; rather, it is congenital.
c. Immunodeficiency is almost immediately symptomatic.
d. Immunodeficiency is a result of a postnatal mutation.

36. A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?
a. No antigens c. Both A and B antigens
b. No antibodies d. Both A and B antibodies

37. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. I c. III
b. II d. IV

38. Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody?
a. Binding with receptors for neural transmitters on muscle cells, causing neonatal muscular weakness
b. Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism
c. Inducing anomalies in the fetus or causing pregnancy loss
d. Destroying platelets in the fetus and neonate

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

39. When a tuberculin skin test is positive, the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Histamine d. Products of complement
b. T lymphocytes e. Macrophages
c. Immune complexes

40. Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)
a. Poison ivy d. Nickel
b. Neomycin e. Detergents
c. Dairy products

41. Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply.)
a. Crohn disease d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Addison disease e. Noninsulin-dependent diabetes
c. Rheumatoid arthritis

42. Which statements best define acute rejection? (Select all that apply.)
a. Acute rejection is a cell-mediated immune response.
b. Acute rejection is usually a type III rejection.
c. Immunosuppressive drugs delay or lessen the intensity of an acute rejection.
d. Acute rejection is associated with the body’s response to an organ transplant.
e. Acute rejection is a response against unmatched human leukocyte antigens (HLAs).

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